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Michael Alan Dover, PhD's avatar

This is very interesting to me as a sociologist who studied real property and has been working on an alternative to neoliberalism.

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vk's avatar

Equality/inequality is not relevant to analyze the state-of-the-art of a given capitalist formation. Philosophically, there are mere relations of quantity and they may arise or disappear at any moment, in any type of society (the same is true for freedom, which is not a category, but just a relation).

Income is just an accountancy device, a classification. It bears no real meaning in the material world. A capitalist may decide to earn, according to the laws of the country he is living, a certain amount of his wealth in the classification of income. An unproductive worker will receive his/her wages in the form of income. This or that quantity of wealth may be classified as income. Something that is considered income today may not be considered income tomorrow, if the laws of a State changes in this way.

The important factor is the organic composition of capital (OCC). That is, how much of dead labor is employed in relation (not the philosophical one, this is just the vulgar sense of the word) to living labor: the ratio between fixed capital and variable capital.

There is no and will never be an official statistic for OCC, because that's a Marxist category and those who have the instruments of measure at this scale are capitalists. But there are approximations done by some individual economists (e.g. Michael Roberts) and, from that, we can infer the social (average) profit rate of capitalism. And all of those numbers point to the direction that OCC is rising and the social profit rate is falling. In other words, the working class may even be earning more than ever - but it is being dwarfed by the amount of crystallized wealth that must be increasingly be erected in order to sustain those wages (or, if you insist, “income”).

Now, for the earnings of the capitalist class. Indeed, the capitalist, as a human, must take some portion of the profits of his means of production in order to sustain himself and his family (capitalism is a patriarchal mode of production, therefore the individual always presupposes the family, that goes without saying). And, equally so, the growth of this spending may slowdown the velocity of the rise of OCC and the fall of the social profit rate (the growth of the luxury sector). But this has a limit, because, as stated, the personal spending of the capitalist is a direct deduction of the surplus value generated by capital itself. In other words, the capitalist is him/herself an obstacle to capital; the perfect capital has no human capitalist as its owner (but this is impossible, because the capitalist is the personification of capital; the perfect capital can't exist in the real world).

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