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vk's avatar

Just some notes of clarification on Nayar:

1) As Losurdo demonstrated, the original liberalism was born in order to defend cattle slavery against serf labor. The first use of the word "liberalism" he found was in Spain, a letter to king Phillip, from the beginning of the 16th Century, and its meaning undoubtedly meant the defense of freedom to move property (i.e. slaves). The key is that the serf could not be moved from one piece of land to another, because he was tied to the land; one of the greatest, if not the greatest, philosopher or the original liberalism was John Locke;

2) What we call nowadays "liberalism" is actually liberal radicalism, racial liberalism or radicalism, which was a schism of original liberalism after the French Revolution of 1789. Some time before or after the Revolution, France had temporarily lost many or all of its colonies, leaving it with no benefit of the cattle slave system; they then decided that, if they could not, nobody should be able to benefit from it. The Irish question was also of interest, as they were de facto slaves of the English, their archenemy. Radicalism (which the Europeans and Americans now call liberalism) was thus born;

3) Stalin definitely did not have anything to do with the failed German Revolutions (1918 and 1923). He did not consolidate power until at least 1928. The concept of social-fascism, if memory doesn't fail me, is from the early 1930s. Either way, it was the Social-Democrats who crushed the 1918-1919 Revolution, not the KPD; indeed, the KPD was a consequence of that episode, not the cause. The 1923 was a completely artificial and minor attempt by the KPD, but it was defended and supported mainly by Zinoviev, Radek and Trotstky, not Stalin. Indeed, at the time, Stalin was the only one who realized communist revolutions were not going to happen in Europe -- this was one of the main factors he, and not the others, succeeded Lenin;

4) From the Marxist point of view, the apex of capitalism the system was during the mid 19th Century and not the Postwar Period. Postwar capitalism was completely mixed with socialists elements, therefore not pure enough. Systems do not die suddenly and clearly: they die by one thousand cuts. Antiquity didn't die in 475: it died almost 200 years before, with the Diocletian Reforms (hence the "Late Antiquity" debate among historians).

Long story short, Marxists do not consider the postwar miracle the apex of capitalism; what happens is that the people who write History since that period -- a very particular cosmopolitan middle class, made mainly by university professors and other professional researchers -- consider the postwar miracle the apex of capitalism because they are the ones who benefited the most from it. But from the point of view of capitalism itself, the purity of the system, capitalism had its apex somewhere during the Victorian Era up until no after 1914, e.g. so anything between the very late 18th Century and WWI -- probably around the year of 1851, where the Great Exhibition at the Crystal Palace serves as a mnemonic mark.

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Michael's avatar

Brilliant, thank you very much. Very much my thoughts as well. And yes, it is fascism light, no doubt. If you take Michael Mann's definition of fascism, we are halfway there already, and under Dimitrov's definition probably 2/3rds of the way.

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